On the morning of Friday July 14th, the New York Post published a very carefully worded headline, “Biden authorizes Pentagon to deploy 3K reserve troops to Europe in response to Ukraine war”, and an equally carefully worded news-report under it, which might be today’s equivalent to a repeat of how — despite there never having been any declaration of war by the U.S. Congress that the U.S. Constitution states must precede any Presidential action of war against any country — the U.S. President has repeatedly sent U.S. troops to fight and die in countries he labels ‘hostile’. That Constitutional clause which requires a congressional declaration of war, has been null and void ever since WW II ended, but is Biden now going to violate the Constitution yet again and go to war this time against Russia? How can Biden do that and not be violating the U.S. Constitution and therefore being at war against the American people — treasonous?
The President’s order cites as its authorization “Operation Atlantic Resolve”, and that’s one whose authorizing document and thus starting-date are secret, but which operation, according to Global Security, began as follows: “The first land forces activity associated with this operation was Exercise Saber Guardian 14: (Bulgaria, March 21 – April 4). Approximately 550 U.S. service members, with Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belgium, Bulgaria, United Kingdom, Georgia, Moldova, Poland, Romania, Turkey and Ukraine.” So, though it includes Ukraine, it might not station any U.S. troops in Ukraine. The U.S. won’t clearly be at war against Russia in Ukraine unless having U.S. troops in Ukraine and supporting the armed forces of Ukraine against Russia. Until now, there have been very few such U.S. troops in Ukraine. Biden’s announcement on July 13th might, or it might not, cause up to 3,000 more. But, if it will, then Biden would first need Congress to declare war against Russia.
“The last time the United States formally declared war, using specific terminology, on any nation was in 1942, when war was declared against Axis-allied Hungary, Bulgaria, and Romania, because President Franklin Roosevelt thought it was improper to engage in hostilities against a country without a formal declaration of war. Since then, every American president has used military force without a declaration of war.”
This clearly shows that the U.S. has been having quite a run of anti-Constitutional Presidents (starting with Truman), but if you will click onto that statement’s link at its footnote 3, you will see that on each such occasion the U.S. Congress has been equally as treasonous by using the trick of agreeing “to resolutions authorizing the use of military force and continues to shape U.S. military policy through appropriations and oversight” so that the U.S. Government invades without declaring war — blatantly violates the U.S. Constitution
“On at least 125 occasions, the President has acted without prior express military authorization from Congress. These include instances in which the United States fought in the Philippine–American War from 1898–1903, in Nicaragua in 1927, as well as the NATO bombing campaign of Yugoslavia in 1999, and the 2018 missile strikes on Syria.
Of course, in order to have such elected public officials, the public have to be deceived and/or their votes have to be miscounted, but, in either instance, the result is the same: anti-Constitutional and thus treasonous Government which only CALLS ITSELF (and is called in its media) ‘democratic’.
So: is the next undeclared war to be WW III? Or: would the U.S. Congress finally go on public record as voting for WW III? This time, it wouldn’t be like invasions such as against Iraq, Libya and Syria. It would be an order of magnitude worse, and would destroy the entire world, All for what? How did those people get into Congress, anyway?